Saturday, November 15, 2008

29 - AIIMS november 2008 pediatrics mcqs - part 2

157.  a 7 yr old girl with non productive cough, mild stridor for 3 months duration. patient is improving but suddenly developed wheeze productive cough mild fever and hyperlucency on cxr and pft shows obstructive curve.diagnosis is? 
A. Bronchiolitis obliterans 
b. Hemosiderosis 
c. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis 
d. Follicular bronchitis 
 Answer: 

158. 3.5 kg term male baby born of uncomplicated pregnancy developed respiratory distress at birth not responded to surfactant, echo is normal, cxr shows ground glass appearance. Culture negative.apgar score 4 and 5 at 1 and 5 min.hostory of i month female sibling died before.diagnosis? 
A. Tapvc 
b. Meconium aspiration 
c. Neonatal plmonary alveolar proteinosis 
d. Diffuse herpes simplex infection 
 Answer: 

159. All are true about congenital rubella except? 
A. Igg persists for more than 6 months 
b. Igm antibody is present at birth 
c. Most common anomalies are hearing and heart defects 
d. Increased congenital malformation if infection after 16 weeks 
 Answer: 

160. A 10 yr old child is always restless inattentive to study and always wants to play outside.parents are extremely distressed.what would you advise? 
A. It’s a normalbehaviour 
b. Behaviour therapy 
c. It’s a serious illness requires medical treatment 
d. Needs change in environment 
Answer:

161.a 2yr old child brought to emergency at 3 am .child has barky cough and stridor only while crying. narmal hydration rr-36/min t-39.6 c .what will be your next step? 
a. racemic epinephrine nebulisation 
b. high dose dexamethasone inj 
c. nasal was for influenza/rsv 
d. antibiotics and blood culture 
 Answer: 

162.bad prognostic factor for all is? 
a. age 2-8 years 
b. TLC greater than 50000
c. hyperdiploidy 
d. t(9:22), t(8:14),t(4:11) 
 answer:

Wednesday, November 12, 2008

28 - AIIMS November 2008 Pediatrics mcqs - part 1

1Q: which of these statements is not correct ?
A. Neomycin is used as a preservative for BCG
B. kanamycin is use as a preservative for measles
C. magnesium chloride is used as a stabilizer for OPV
D. thimerosal is used as a preservative for DPT

answer: A .

let us analyse the options one by one

NEOMYCIN IS USED AS A PRESERVATIVE FOR BCG

The statement is FALSE

BCG contains glycerine, asparagine, citric acid, potassium phosphate, magnesium sulphate, and iron ammonium citrate. The final preparation prior to freeze-drying also contains lactose.

Sodium glutamate and chloride are also used as preservatives.

There is no neomycin

KANAMYCIN IS USE AS A PRESERVATIVE FOR MEASLES

The statement is TRUE

Yes , measles vaccine contains the antibiotics erythromycin and kanamycin.

Therefore , “kanamycin allergy is a definite contra indication to the measles vaccine ”

MAGNESIUM CHLORIDE IS USED AS A STABILISER IN OPV

That’s TRUE

Also remember

“Injectable polio vaccines do contain the antibiotics neomycin , streptomycin and polymyxin B but not oral polio vaccine !!! ”

Who knows …… this might be the question of 2009 !

THIMEROSAL IS USED AS A PRESERVATIVE IN DPT

YES that’s also true.

Thimerosal is a mercury derivative and hence raising a lot of controversies. It is used in certain other vaccines too.

WHAT IS SO CONTROVERSIAL ABOUT IT ?

Statistics indicate that AUTISM is on the rise. Researchers say that the use of thimerosal in several vaccines, especially DPT is directly related to the rise in autism !!!!

Composition of vaccines :

DPT: Aluminium phosphate, formaldehyde, ammonium sulphate, washed sheep red blood cells, glycerol, sodium chloride, thimerosal

Polio:
IPOL: 3 types of polio
virus, formaldehyde, henoxyethanol (antifreeze), neomycin, streptomycin, polymyxin B;
Orimune: using 3 types of attenuated polioviruses, streptomycin, neomycin, calf serum, sorbitol

HIB: polyribosylribitol, ammonium sulfate, thimerosal.

MMR: sorbitol, neomycin, hydrolyzed gelatin.

BCG: glycerine, asparagine, citric acid, potassium phosphate, magnesium sulphate, and iron ammonium citrate. The final preparation prior to freeze-drying also contains lactose.

Sunday, October 5, 2008

27 - Carney complex

Q: Carney complex includes which of the following components?

a.Large cell calcifying Sertoli cell tumors

b.Cardiac myxomas
c.Primary pigmented adrenocortical disease
d.Autosomal dominant transmission
e.All of the above



Explanation:
This autosomal dominant disorder is mapped to chromosome 2p16 and may be due to a gain-of-function mutation. The adrenal disorder is a pigmented nodular adrenocortical disease with associated features such as lentigines, blue nevi, cardiac and skin myxomas, and sexual precocity in boys with large cell calcifying Sertoli tumors and melanotic schwannomas. (See Chapter 571 in Nelson
Textbook of Pediatrics, 17th ed.)

Thursday, October 2, 2008

26 - Paediatrics Cases mcqs - 1

1q: Which one of the listed clinical scenarios is most consistent with a
diagnosis of SIDS?
a. A 2-year-old female dies suddenly and no autopsy is performed
b. A 3-month-old female dies during sleep and the cause of death is unknown
after autopsy
c. A 4-week-old female dies from respiratory complications after being born 10
weeks prematurely
d. A 9-month-old male dies and an autopsy finds evidence of repeated bone fractures
and bilateral retinal hemorrhages
e. A male is stillborn at 29 weeks of gestation to a mother with obstetrical complications





*Sudden infant death syndrome :
(SIDS) is a heterogeneous, multifactorial disorder, but by definition it refers to sudden death of infant under 1 year of age that is unexplained after thorough examination. Most cases of SIDS occur between 2 and 4
months of life, and the child usually dies during sleep (“crib death” or “cot death”). A risk factor for SIDS is sleeping in a prone position. Therefore healthy infants should sleep on their back or side. Maternal factors associated with SIDS include age less than 20, being unmarried, low socioeconomic group, smoking, and drug abuse. Infant factors associated with SIDS include prematurity, low birth weight, male sex, and a history of SIDS in a sibling. In contrast to SIDS, death from respiratory complications after being born 10 weeks prematurely is suggestive of hyaline membrane disease, while evidence of repeated bone fractures and bilateral retinal hemorrhages is suggestive of trauma, child abuse, or “shaken baby” syndrome.

Tuesday, August 26, 2008

25 - Developmental Milestones - part 3

3 months
Neck holding
5 months
Sitting with support
8 months
Sitting without support
9 months
Standing with support
12 months
standing without support
10 months
Walking with support
13 months
Walking without support
18 months
Running
24 months
Walking upstairs
36 months
Riding tricycle
Crawling
8 months
Creeping
( abdomen off ground)
And cruising
10 months

Monday, August 25, 2008

24 - Developmental Milestones - part 2

Walking up and down stairs using 2 feet per step
2 years
Walking upstairs with one feet per step and coming down with 2 feet per step
3 years
Walking upstairs and downstairs both using only one feet per step
3-4 years
TOWER OF CUBES

3 cubes
15 months
4 cubes
18 months


6 cubes
21 months
7 cubes
24 months


9 cubes
30 months
10 cubes
36 months


23 - Developmental Milestones - part 1



line
2 years
circle
3 years
square
4 years
rectangle
4 years
plus
4 years
Triangle
5 years
Cross
5 years
Tip-toe walking
2.5 years
Hopping
4 years
Skipping
5 years
3 months
Cooing
6 months
Monosyllables ( ma , ba )
9 months
Bisyllables ( mama , baba )
12 months
Two words with meaning
18 months
Ten words with meaning
24 months
2 or 3 simple sentences
36 months
Telling story ( 250 words vocabulary )

Just some additional information :

0-1 year        = infancy
2-3 years      = toddler
3-6 years      = preschool age
6-12 years     = school age
12 - 20 years = adolesence

Monday, July 7, 2008

22 - Milestones of Prenatal development

1st week of gestation : fertilization and implantation , beginning of embryonic period.
2nd week of gestation : endoderm and ectoderm appear ( bilaminar embryo ).
3rd week of gestation : first missed menstrual period, mesoderm appears ( trilaminar embryo ), somites begin to form.
4th week of gestation : neural folds fuse, folding of embryo into human like shape, arm and leg buds appear , crown-rump length is 4 to 5 mm .
5th week of gestation : lens placodes,primitive mouth,digital rays on hands.
6th week of gestation : primitive nose , philtrum ,primary palate , crown-rump length 21 – 23 mm
7th week of gestation : eyelids begin
8th week of gestation : ovaries and testes distinguishable
9th week of gestation : fetal period begins, crown-rump length is 5 cms, weight is 9 grams .
10th week of gestation : external genitalia distinguishable
20th week of gestation : usual lower limit of viability ,weight is 460 grams , length is 19 cms
28th week of gestation : eyes open , fetus turns head down , weight is 1000 grams
38th week of gestation : term.

Tuesday, March 25, 2008

20 - Paediatrics Mcqs - 152 to 165

152 - Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate?
A. Urine culture of CMV
B. IgG CMV antibodies in blood
C. Intra-nuclear inclusion bodies in hepatocytes
D. CMV viral DNA in blood by polymerase chain reaction

(Ref: Cloherty’s Manual of Neonatal Care 5th Ed/P-257)

153 - All of the following are true of β thalassemia major, except:
A. Splenomegaly
B. Target cells on peripheral smear
C. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
D. Increased osmotic fragility

(Ref: Manual of Pediatric Hematology and Oncology, 4th Ed/P-184)

154 - Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hip is characterized by all of the following, except:
A. May follow upper respiratory infection
B. ESR and white blood cell counts are usually normal
C. Ultrasound of the joint reveals widening of the joint space
D. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation

(Ref: Nelson’s Textbook of Pediatrics 17th Ed, Ch. 148, P-809)

155 - A 3-year-old boy presents with fever, dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull to percussion. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Posterior urethral valves
D. Teratoma


156 - Which of the following statements is true of primary grade IV-V vesicoureteric reflux in young children?
A. Renal scarring usually begins in the midpolar regions
B. Postnatal scarring may occur even in the absence of urinary tract infections
C. Long-term outcome is comparable in patients treated with either antibiotic prophylaxis or surgery
D. Oral amoxicillin is the choice antibiotic for prophylaxis

(Ref: Nelson’s Textbook of Pediatrics 17th Ed—Ch. 531-Vesicoureteric Reflux, P-1791-1793)

157 - 15-year-old boy presented with one day history of bleeding gums, subconjunctival bleed and purpuric rash. Investigations revealed the following results:
Hb-6.4 gm/dL; TLC-26,500/mm3 Platelet-35,000/mm3; prothrombin time–20 sec with a control of 13 sec; partial thromboplastin time-50 sec; and Fibrinogen 10 mg/dL. Peripheral smear was suggestive of acute myeloblastic leukemia. Which of the following is the most likely?
A. Myeloblastic leukemia without maturation
B. Myeloblastic leukemia with maturation
C. Promyelocytic leukemia
D. Myelomonscytic leukemia

*The type of AML, which is most commonly associated with DIC is AML M3.
(Ref: Manual of Pediatric Hematology and Oncology, 4th Ed/P-306, 443)

158 - The defective migration of neural crest cells results in:
A. Congenital megacolon
B. Albinism
C. Adrenogenital hypoplasia
D. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

(Ref: Schwartz’s Principles of Surgery 8th Ed. 2005— Part II- Specific Considerations; Ch. 38-Pediatric Surgery)

159 - A premature infant is born with a patent ductus arteriosus. Its closure can be stimulated by administration of:
A. Prostaglandin analogue
B. Estrogen
C. Anti-estrogen compounds
D. Prostaglandin inhibitors


160 - The loading dose of Aminophylline is:
A. 50-75 ug/kg
B. 0.5-1.0 mg/kg
C. 2.0-3.5 mg/kg
D. 5-6 mg/kg


161 - Cushing’s Triad includes all except:
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypothermia
D. Irregular respiration

(Ref: Current Pediatric Diagnosis and Treatment 17th Ed. 2005—Ch. 11-Emergencies and Injuries)

162 - All of the following drugs are used for managing status epilepticus except:
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Thiopentone sodium
D. Carbamazepine

(Ref: Current Pediatric Diagnosis and Treatment 17th Ed. 2005—Ch. 23-Neurologic and Muscular Disorders; Table 23.9-Status epilepticus treatment)

163 - Administration of glucose solution is prescribed for all of the following situations except:
A. Neonates
B. Child of a diabetic mother
C. History of unconsciousness
D. History of hypoglycemia

(Ref: Rudolph’s Pediatrics 21st Ed. 2003—24. The Endocrine System; 24.9-Hypoglycemia)

164 - Which organ is the primary site of hematopoiesis in the fetus before midpregnancy?
A. Bone
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Lung

(Ref: Nelson’s Textbook of Pediatrics 17th Ed/
P-1599)

165 - All of the following are the complications in the new born of a diabetic mother except:
A. Hyperbilirubinemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia

(Ref: Cloherty’s Manual of Neonatal Care 5th Ed./P-13-1.

McQs in Paediatrics (Pocket MCQs)
Paediatric McQs for Postgraduate Examinations: Practice Examinations
McQs in Paediatrics: With a Tactical Guide on How to Approach Clinical Examinations (PMCQ)

19 - Paediatrics Mcqs - 141 to 151

141 - Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:
A. Gilbert’s syndrome
B. Griggler Najjar syndrome
C. Breast milk jaundice
D. Dubin Johnson syndrome

Ans. (D) Dubin Johnson syndrome
(Ref: Nelson’s Textbook of Pediatrics 17th Ed, Ch. 338, P-1321)

142 - A 15-year-old female presented to the emergency department with history of recurrent epistaxis, hematuria and hematochezia. There was a history of profuse bleeding from the umbilicus stump at birth. Previous investigations revealed normal prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, thrombin time and fibrinogen levels. Her platelet counts as well as platelet function tests were normal but urea c1ot Jt. positive. Which one of the following clotting factor is most likely to be deficient?
A. Factor X
B. Factor XI

C. Factor XII
D. Factor XIII

Ans. (D) Factor XIII
(Ref: Nelson Pediatrics 17th Ed/P-1661)

143 - Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
A. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning
B. Complete remission is common
C. Response to anticonvulsants is poor
D. Associated absence seizures are present in majority of patients

Ans. (A) Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in the morning
(Ref: Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine 16th Ed. 2005—Part XV-Neurologic Disorders;Sec. 2-Diseases of the Central Nervous System;Ch. 348-Seizures and Epilepsy)
*Here is a short notes on Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (Janz syndrome)


144 - Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
A. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
B. TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary venous connection)
C. Ebstein’s anomaly
D. Ventricular septal defect

Ans. (C) Ebstein’s anomaly
(Ref: Review of Radiology 3rd Ed/p-42-43)

145 - Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?
A. Marfan’s syndrome
B. Testicular feminization syndrome
C. Klinefelter’ s syndrome
D. Down’s syndrome

Ans. (C) Klinefelter’ s syndrome
(Ref: Robbins and Cotrans’s Pathologic Basis of Disease 7th Ed/P-145)

146 - Which of the following haemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful in a case of beta thalassemia trait?
A. Hb-F 

B. Hb1C
C. Hb-A2 

D. Hb-H

Ans. (C) Hb-A2
(Ref: Nelsons Pediatrics 17th Ed/P-1633)

147 - Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease?
A. Anti-endomysial antibody
B. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody
C. Anti-gliadin antibody
D. Anti-reticulin antibody

Ans. (A) Anti-endomysial antibody
(Ref: Nelsons Pediatrics 17th Ed/P-1265)

148 - A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory evaluation (including molecular studies) both parents are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in this family?
A. Non penetrance
B. Uniparental diasomy
C. Genomic imprinting
D. Germline mosaicism

Ans. (D) Germline Mosaicism
(Ref: Journal of Child Neurology/Vol. 19, No. 9, Sept. 2004)

149 - Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except:
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B. Friedreich’s ataxia
C. Type II glycogen storage disease
D. Alkaptonuria

Ans. (D) Alkaptonuria

150 - Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
A. Gaucher disease
B. Niemann Pick disease
C. Mucolipidosis
D. Metachromatic leukodystrophy

Ans. (A) Gaucher’s disease.

151 - In a child with acute liver failure, the most important prognostic factor for death is:
A. Increasing transaminases
B. Increasing bilirubin
C. Increasing prothrombin time
D. Gram negative sepsis

Ans. (C) Prothrombin time.
(Ref: Diseases of the liver and the biliary system 11th Ed, Ch. 8-Acute Liver Failure, P-118)

18 - Pediatric Pulmonology mcqs - Question 1


1. A 10 year old boy has a 1 year history of cough that is worse at night and with exercise.Which one of the following tests is most likely to assist you to make a diagnosis:

A-Barium swallow.
B-Bronchoscopy.
C-Chest radiograph.
D-Spirometry.
E-Sweat chloride test.

the answer is d . as the diagnosis is in favour of bronchial asthma the answer is d.




Essential Pediatric McQs
MCQs in Pediatrics 2nd edition
MCQs in Pediatrics ; Over 600 Questions with Explanatory Notes

Monday, March 10, 2008

17 - Congenital Dislocation of Hip ( CDH or DDH)


*Synonyms: CDH, Developmental dysplasia of the hip, DDH, dysplasia of the hip

*Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) was formerly referred to as congenital dislocation of hip. DDH is now the preferred term to reflect that DDH is an ongoing developmental process, which is variable in presentation and not always detectable at birth. Developmental dysplasia of the hip refers to a range of developmental hip disorders, from a hip that is mildly dysplastic, concentrically located, and stable, to one that is severely dysplastic and dislocated.

*There is a suggestion that the national screening programme in the UK, that has operated since 1969, has not resulted in any less operations for late disease. Even the use of ultrasound has failed to improve the situation. It may be that the use of more experienced clinicians in the screening programme, rather than very junior doctors, produces better results.


*Epidemiology
-The prevalence of developmental dysplasia of the hip varies with age and method of assessment. In unscreened populations the median prevalence of persistent and clinically diagnosed hip dysplasia is estimated to be 1·3 per 1,000 births.
-The prevalence of neonatal clinical hip instability detected through the Ortolani and Barlow manoeuvres is higher, ranging from 1·6 to 28·5 per 1,000.1
-The left hip is dislocated more often than the right. This is thought to be due to the common position of the baby's left hip against the mother's sacrum, restricting movement.
-It is more common in cultures that use swaddling of babies, forcing the hips into extension and adduction.
-The pictures below show SWADDLING.






*Risk factors:
-There are racial differences. In the USA it is found that native Americans and Laplanders have a high incidence whilst Chinese and African Americans have a low incidence.
-Positive family history of the condition increases the risk in a manner suggestive of multifactorial inheritance.
-About 80 to 85% are female.
-About 60% of cases are first-born, compared with about 40% of all babies.
-Breech presentation increases the risk of DDH. The extended breech position in which knees are extended is a higher risk than with knees flexed. Elective caesarean section reduces the risk compared with vaginal breech delivery but it remains higher than after a cephalic presentation.
-Restriction of movement as with oligohydramnios increases the risk.
-It is commoner with neuromuscular disorders, such as cerebral palsy, meningomyelocele and arthrogryposis.

*Examination :
-The Ortolani and Barlow tests are the most common clinical tests for newborn babies.
-In the Ortolani test, the examiner applies forward pressure to each femoral head in turn, in an attempt to move a posteriorly dislocated femoral head forwards into the acetabulum. Palpable movement suggests that the hip is dislocated or subluxed, but reducible.
-In the Barlow test, backward pressure is applied to the head of each femur in turn, and a subluxable hip is suspected on the basis of palpable partial or complete displacement.
-A clunk feels like turning a light switch on or off. A click is much lighter and probably of no significance.
-Some units insist that the neonatal test should be performed only by an experienced person, usually an orthopaedic surgeon or a paediatrician, and not repeated by others less skilled for fear that numerous tests, perhaps with a little more force than necessary, may encourage instability of the joints.
-An early sign is limitation of hip abduction.

*Children between 1 and 2 months
-True dislocation has occurred and the Ortolani test is used.
-The thigh is flexed and abducted and the femoral head is lifted anteriorly into the acetabulum. Reduction will be felt as a clunk rather than heard as a click. This procedure is impossible after 2 months because soft tissue contractures develop.

*3 to 6 months
-The physical signs are rather different and so are the requirements of examination.
-If the hip is dislocated it is in a fixed position.
-The Galeazzi sign:
o The child is examined lying supine with the hips and knees flexed.
o A positive sign is that one leg appears shorter than the other.
o This is usually due to dislocation of the hip but any discrepancy of limb length will produce a positive sign.
-Other physical signs for late dislocation include asymmetry of the gluteal thigh or labral skin folds, decreased abduction on the affected side, standing or walking with external rotation of the affected leg, and leg length inequality.

*Bilateral dislocation of the hip:
-Can be quite difficult to diagnose, especially after the neonatal period.
-There is often a waddling gait with hyperlordosis.
-The Galeazzi sign for hip shortening is often absent as are asymmetrical thigh and skin folds, or asymmetrically decreased abduction.
-Careful examination is needed with a high level of suspicion.

*Investigations :
-Dynamic ultrasound is used to assess hip stability and acetabular development in infants.
-It is the technique of choice and has even been suggested as a universal screening procedure.
-In older children, x-rays of the pelvis are required.
-Arthrography, CT and MRI may also be needed.

*Management
-Bracing is first-line treatment in children younger than six months. Surgery is an option for children in whom nonoperative treatment has failed and in children diagnosed after six months of age.
-It is important to diagnose developmental dysplasia of the hip early to improve treatment results and to decrease the risk of complications.
-However early detection and treatment does not entirely avoid the need for subsequent surgery, and surgery is needed by up to 5% of infants treated with abduction splinting.
-The indications for the various procedures and the most effective management interventions remain controversial.

*At birth
-It is usually sufficient to maintain the unstable hip in a position of flexion and abduction for one or two months.
-This keeps the femoral head in the correct position and allows time for the ligamentous structures to tighten as well as bones to grow normally.
-The Pavlik harness, Frejka splint and other orthoses are kept in place until the hip is clinically stable with normal ultrasound or X-ray measurements. Controversially, double or triple nappies are often used in newborns for 2 or 3 weeks until splints and harnesses will fit properly.

*Between 1 and 6 months :
-A true dislocation may have occurred, so the aim of treatment is to reduce the femoral head into the acetabulum.
-The Pavlik harness is used to put the hip in the normal position by flexing it at least 90° and preferably 100 to 110°, with relatively full but gentle abduction of 50 to 70°.
-Spontaneous reduction of the femoral head usually occurs within 3 or 4 weeks and the harness is continued until X-ray measurements are normal. This is usually 3 months for dislocation and 2 months for subluxation.
-If this does not occur, closed surgical reduction is attempted with 1 to 3 weeks of preliminary skin traction to place the femoral head opposite the acetabulum, percutaneous adductor tenotomy, closed reduction and a hip spica cast.

*Between 6 months and 2 years :
-Surgical closed reduction may work but, if there is significant instability, an open reduction may be necessary.
-Open reduction is required for children above 2 years of age. A hip spica cast is worn for 6 weeks with a gradual return to full activities.
-Pelvic osteotomies and femoral shortening may be required.

*Complications :
-Surgery can result in a number of complications including re-dislocation, stiffness, blood loss and avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis (which occurs in 5 to 15% cases).
-Avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis is caused by compression of cartilage when reducing the femoral head under pressure, which may result in occlusion of intra-articular and extraosseous epiphyseal blood vessels causing infarction.
-Although it revascularises, there may be abnormal growth and development.
-Extreme abduction, especially combined with extension and internal rotation, results in a higher rate of avascular necrosis.



Essential Pediatric McQs
MCQs in Pediatrics 2nd edition
MCQs in Pediatrics ; Over 600 Questions with Explanatory Notes


Monday, January 14, 2008

16 - Pediatrics Mcqs - 131 to 140

131) Child Copies circle by
a. 36 months
b. 24 months
c. 30 months
d. 48 months
Answer 36 months
Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 46

132) The percentage of chance of development of Respiratory Distress Syndrome in a Premature new born baby with weight 1250 to 1500 gms is
a. 90 %
b. 50 %
c. 10 %
d. 1 %
Answer a) 90 %
Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 166

133) Chest in drawing / Retraction in a child means
a. no pneumonia
b. pneumonia
c. severe pneumonia
d. None
Answer d) Severe pneumonia
Reference: Park 18th Edition Page 142

134) All are features of Marasmus except
a. Fatty liver
b. Edema
c. Decreased insulin level
d. Decreased cortisol level
Answer Edema
Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 104

135) Height of the child from 1 to 3 years increases at the rate of ….. .cm per month
a. 0.5 cm
b. 0.75 cm
c. 1 cm
d. 1.5 cm
Answer c) 1 cm
Reference: Nelson 15th Edition Table 11.5

136) IQ of a Moderate MR is
a. less than 35
b. 35-49
c. 50-70
d. 20-34
Answer b) 35 to 49
Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 543

137) Best investigation for esophageal atresia in a child is
a. Barium Swallow
b. Fibrotic endoscopy
c. X Ray with Controlled ryle’s tube Watersoluble Contrast
d. Rigid endoscopy
Answer c ) X Ray with Controlled ryle’s tube Watersoluble Contrast
Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 178, Nelson 15th Edition Chapter 265.

138) The Drug of choice for parenteral admission for chloroquine sensitive malaria in child
a. Chloroquine
b. Mefloquine
c. Artesunate
d. Quinine
Answer a) Chloroquine
Reference: OP Ghai Paediatrics 6th Edition Page 246.

139) Major complication of undescended testes
a. malignancy
b. torsion
c. hernia
d. sterility
Answer a) Malignancy
Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition

140) Which of the following will lead to suspicion of Bartered baby syndrome
a. Multiple fracture
b. Improper History
c. Both
d. None
Answer c) Both

15 - Paediatrics Mcqs - 121 to 130

121) A child should know his age and gender by
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years

Answer : (b) 3 years
Reference: OP Ghai 6th Edition Pages 44, 48

122) At 3 years a child has
a. 12 teeth
b. 20 teeth
c. 24 teeth
d. 28 teeth

Answer : (b) 20 teeth
Reference: OP Ghai 6th Edition Page 6

Few more points
1. Third Molar is the Wisdom Teeth
2. Other methods used in relation to the teeth are the
a. Boyde’s Formula
b. Stack’s Method
Tips
About Mixed Dentition
1. Mixed Dentition occurs from Eruption of First Permanent teeth (First Molar) to the Last Canine
2. Remember that the total number of teeth increase only when the Permanent Molars erupt. It is because all other permanent teeth erupt by “pushing” out a milk teeth
3. The number of teeth increases from 6 months to 2 years and at two years it is 20 (5 x 4)
4. At the sixth year, the number increases from 20 to 24, because the first molar erupts and no tooth falls (Remember that there are 4 first molars- Upper Right, Upper Left, Lower Right, Lower Left)
5. From 7 to 12 years the number remains 24 because as and when a tooth erupts, it displaces another and the number remains constant.
6. There is an addition of more from the age of 12 to 14 when the second Molar erupts and the total number becomes 28
7. Then the number remains constant till 17 and again 4 more are added from 17 to 25 and the number is 32

123) Hutchinson teeth
a. upper central incisor
b. Molar
c. Canine
d. Lower Central Incisor
Answer : (a) Upper Central Incisor
Reference: Harrison 16th Edition Page 981.

124) Meconeum ileus is seen in patients with
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Marfan’s Syndrome
c. Hydrocephalus
d. None of the above
Answer : (A) Cystic Fibrosis
Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 1199.

125) APGAR score is seen
a. Immediately after birth
b. One week after birth
c. One month after birth
d. During first birthday
Answer : (a) Immediately after birth
Reference: OP Ghai 6th Edition Page 144.

126) Causes of short stature are
a. Constitutional delay in growth
b. Intrauterine Growth Retardation
c. Nutritional dwarfism
d. All of the above
Answer : (d) All of the above
Reference: OP Ghai 6th Edition Pages 50.

127) Colour of Transition Stool is
a. Greenish Yellow
b. Golden Yellow
c. Green Brown
d. None of the above
Answer : (c) Green Brown
Reference: Nelson 15th Edition Chapter 251.

The number, color, and consistency of stools may vary greatly in the same infant and between infants of similar age without apparent explanation. The earliest stools after birth consist of meconium, a dark, viscous, gumlike material. When nursing or formula feedings begin, meconium is replaced by green-brown transition stools, often containing curds, and, after 4-5 days, by yellow-brown milk stools. Stool frequency is extremely variable in normal infants and may vary from 0-7 per day. Breast-fed infants may have frequent, small, loose stools early (transition stools) and then after 2-3 wk may have very infrequent, soft stools. It is possible for a nursing infant to go up to 1-2 wk without any stool and then to have a normal soft bowel movement. The color of stool has little significance except for the presence of blood or absence of bilirubin products. The presence of vegetable matter, such as peas or corn, in the stool of an older infant or toddler ingesting solids is normal and suggests poor chewing and not malabsorption. A pattern of intermittent loose stools, known as "toddler's diarrhea," occurs commonly between 1 and 3 yr of age. Often these children drink frequently (especially juices) and snack throughout the day. Typically the stools occur during the day and not overnight. The volume of fluid intake is often excessive; eliminating between meal liquids and snacks often leads to resolution of the pattern of loose stools.

128) Ramsted Operation is done for
a. TE Fistula
b. Clubfoot
c. Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
d. Spina bifida
Answer : (c) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Reference: Bailey and Love 24th Edition Page 1033.

129) the prognosis of rhabdomysarcoma is likely to be poor if the site of the tumour is:
a. Orbit
b. Para testicular
c. Extremity
d. Urinary bladder.
Answer : (C) Extremity
Reference: OP Ghai 6th Edition Page 575.

130) All of the following are seen in EDWARD syndrome except
a. Long Neck
b. Low Set Ears
c. Rocker bottom foot
d. Renal malformations
Answer : (a) Long Neck
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